It's just policy to go from no inhibition with plea to over a year without
How is it possible that the same proceeding that judges the same violation with the same judges can lead to zero months of inhibition by negotiating a deal and sixteen months of inhibition without negotiating a bargain? What is the legal criterion that allows you to pass from zero to sixteen in such a nonchalant way?
The case of the salary maneuver is really bizarre if you analyze it technically, because Fabio Paratici (equally involved in the violation, if not more, than Agnelli) and with him Federico Cherubini , Maurizio Arrivabene and other managers have not received a day of inhibition in the collective plea agreement of a month ago, while Andrea Agnelli who did not plea bargain at the time went to trial and was discreetly beaten.
Now, the plea agreement provides for sentence reductions, but from sixteen to zero is stuff that not even Black Friday does. Yet the starting point is the same, there are no differences.